I was told several times on here that bribery is one of the clear examples laid out in the constitution for impeachment, and that it is clear that trump is guilty of bribery. Why would the house dems not lay it out as clearly as the lefties on this board claimed it was?
Not a lefty on the board but I did make the case for framing this as soliciting a bribe. I think there was a good case to frame it that way, but I also think the Republicans (namely Turley as their witness) did a really job explaining why this wasn't bribery, at least in the context of how the court's have interpreted the federal bribery statute. So to move forward with that framing, they'd be relying on how bribery was interpreted back in the late 1700's. I still think there's a good argument for that, but that case isn't nearly as well developed as the more general "abuse of power" case.
I think they made a political calculation here to limit the articles and keep the focus narrow. I think Trump is in much better shape if we're arguing about the definition of bribery rather than discussing the underlying conduct. This seems to me like an attempt to narrow the focus as much as possible to the underlying conduct.